Officials and GDP
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Officials and GDP
Question that I have been asking myself for a while: how do officials intervene in the calculation of GDP?
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Ah good question
On this link
http://www.insee.fr/fr/ppp/sommaire/imet108d.pdf
is explained the estimate of the participation of the public service in the GDP.
Selected extract ...
The INSEE stats, must love eh? It's a real job as they say
I must admit that with some of my students, I am not sure that the real "added value" reaches that of the expenses incurred. Fortunately, good students make up for
On this link
http://www.insee.fr/fr/ppp/sommaire/imet108d.pdf
is explained the estimate of the participation of the public service in the GDP.
Selected extract ...
Insee wrote:3. The special case of government production
Governments mainly produce non-market services for which there is no direct valuation.
The value added in value is estimated by the sum of the costs necessary for the production of these non-market services.
These costs are made up of payroll, actual and imputed contributions paid, taxes on production, the opposite of operating subsidies as well as consumption of fixed capital.
The latter is obtained quarterly by smoothing the annual series. The price indicator used to deflate value added in value is the public service salary index (without categorical measures) 5.
Unlike the other branches, intermediate consumption is measured, quarterly, independently of production and results from smoothing. Production is then obtained as the difference between value added and intermediate consumption. The resource-employment balance
is then carried out by balancing on the collective consumption of the administrations.
The INSEE stats, must love eh? It's a real job as they say
I must admit that with some of my students, I am not sure that the real "added value" reaches that of the expenses incurred. Fortunately, good students make up for
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Ah well Remundo, finally concrete! But by reading more closely, oula ca gets complicated ... I'm afraid of not understanding everything.
From what I read: GDP of administrations = their cost, quite simply? But but...
In the public: wage bill = positive GDP?
In the private sector: wage bill = negative GDP? (since expenses are reduced by the added value created by a company ...)
Am I wrong or should I go back to school?
From what I read: GDP of administrations = their cost, quite simply? But but...
In the public: wage bill = positive GDP?
In the private sector: wage bill = negative GDP? (since expenses are reduced by the added value created by a company ...)
Am I wrong or should I go back to school?
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Hey in the same vein: if pensioners are considered as civil servants (plausible) their pensions are also counted positively in the GDP ???
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Hehehehe +1
Here, speaking of nice calculation: Calculation of the actuarial neutral premium for a pay-as-you-go plan
PTDR!
Here, speaking of nice calculation: Calculation of the actuarial neutral premium for a pay-as-you-go plan
PTDR!
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Found in this document: the proportion of GDP "occupied" by the public sector: https://www.econologie.com/forums/consequenc ... 11243.html
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